Jack, a 28-year-old man, has a history of rapid loss of 20-pounds of body weight. Now, he has a complaint of abdominal pain with recurrent rectal bleeding. The CT scan shows a thickened terminal ileum, which is suggestive of Crohn’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis, an endoscopy is performed, which shows normal esophagus and duodenum but multiple erosions in the stomach, along with a few scattered aphthous ulcers in the large intestine and very irregular ileocecal valve. The final diagnosis was made as Crohn’s diagnosis with abscess. What is the appropriate ICD-10 code for this case?
  1. K50.111
  2. K50.112
  3. K50.113
  4. K50.114
Explanation
Answer: D 

K50.114 is the appropriate code as it specifies Crohn’s disease of the large intestine with an abscess which is the diagnosis by the physician in this case. 

Option A is not correct because K50.111 specifies Crohn’s disease of the large intestine with rectal bleeding, which is not the diagnosis here. 

Option B is not correct because K50.112 specifies Crohn’s disease of the large intestine with intestinal obstruction which is not the diagnosis here. 

Option C is not correct because K50.113 specifies Crohn’s disease of the large intestine with fistula which is not the diagnosis here. 
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