Practice Quiz

CNM Certified Nurse Midwife

Category - Gynecology

Start a Study Session Sign up for Question of the Day
A client with a history of syphilis presents with ataxia. Further assessment reveals diminished deep tendon reflexes, proprioception and pain sensation. The nurse determines that the client has neurosyphilis. Which of the following statements is true about the client’s condition?
  1. The client is in the secondary stage of syphilis.
  2. The client is not infectious.
  3. The signs of primary syphilis most likely occurred about 2 years ago.
  4. The client is not treatable.
Explanation
Answer: B - A client with neurosyphilis is not infectious. The client is in the tertiary stage of syphilis, which may involve the visceral organs. Tertiary syphilis usually occurs between 5 and 20 years after the initial infection. A client with neurosyphilis may be treated with procaine.
Was this helpful? Upvote!
Login to contribute your own answer or details
Start a Study Session Sign up for Question of the Day

Top questions

Related questions

Most popular on PracticeQuiz