Practice Quiz

CCRN Nursing Exam Prep - Adult Critical Care

Category - Medical Surgical

Start a Study Session Sign up for Question of the Day
An HIV-positive client presents with a CD4 count of <200/μl and invasive cervical cancer. How would the nurse evaluate these findings in terms of current CDC guidelines?
  1. The client has seroconverted.
  2. The client is HIV-positive.
  3. The client in the latent period of the disease process.
  4. The client has AIDS.
Explanation
Answer - D - The CDC case definition of AIDS for adults states that the two factors described in the question are diagnostic of progression of AIDS. Seroconversion and positive HIV status have already occurred. The latent period is considered to be one in which the individual is asymptomatic.
Previous Next
Was this helpful? Upvote!
Login to contribute your own answer or details
Start a Study Session Sign up for Question of the Day

Top questions

Related questions

Most popular on PracticeQuiz